Legal Question in Criminal Law in California

How can and has the federal government been allowed to strip individuals of their 2nd amendment rights, based on that individual being convicted of a federal felony? Particularly a non-violent federal felony?

If those are Natural rights and not privileges, and the Constitution doesn't give the federal government the power to strip rights away, how have they been able to justify doing so?

Asked on 6/14/20, 4:02 am

1 Answer from Attorneys

Robert Kane Law Offices of Robert D. Kane, Jr.

The Constitution provides for Constitutional rights, not Natural rights.

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Answered on 6/14/20, 4:56 am

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