Legal Question in Family Law in California

How does the no-fault divorce law in california allow a person to circumvent a prenup?

for instance, If the prenup said Elin would get $20 million for 7 years of marriage, what exactly allows her to go after half of everything (estimated $300 million), despite what the prenup says?


Asked on 12/22/09, 12:55 pm

1 Answer from Attorneys

Cosmo Taormina Law Offices of Cosmo Taormina

A poorly written pre-nup.

Seriously, the attack on the validity of the pre-nup could be based on several grounds that are unique to family law (fraud, undue influence, duress and the catch all, "its not fair, judge!"). A lawyer would have to read the agreement and then ask about the circumstances that surrounded the signing of the agreement before you could get a real answer.

California's 'no fault' means that there does not have to be 'grounds' for a divorce. That is, in other jurisdictions there can be no divorce without grounds (infidelity, insanity, abuse, etc.). A pre-nup is an agreement that generally deals with property and usually is not based upon any grounds.

Talk to a lawyer as soon as possible.

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Answered on 12/28/09, 1:18 pm


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