I will re-state my question. My husband was granted the home he was paying for from his ex-wife by means of divorce modification. (Their children are adults and she has since re-married.) My question is does this home become marital property between him and I. (I am now married to him.) If not, what does he need to do to add me to the deed?
2 Answers from Attorneys
People are not added to deeds. If someone wants to transfer an interest in property to you, and do it correctly, they go see a real estate lawyer to handle it.
Whether property is marital or separate matters only in divorce, so you've asked a question that doesn't matter unless your marriage is in trouble.
If his name is on the deed, it's his house, and likely, in the situation you describe, it may remain his even in a divorce, unless things happen that convert the home to marital property.
If he chooses for you to have a stake in the home, he can get a lawyer and deed a portion to you (there are various ways to do this - joint tenancy, tenants in common, life estate, remainder interest, etc), and he can also draft a will to leave you an interest in it. Both of these steps require a lawyer.