California  |  Real Estate Law

Legal Question

Asked on: 8/15/13, 3:20 pm

I have a question and it's a bit lengthy if you could please bear with me. I just want to get a better understanding on what to do with my issue. My grandmother owned 2 properties in Manila. She has 3 kids. My uncle is single still living, but staying in mental hospital in Manila, my father, married, passed away 1998, and my aunt married, residing in US, but now in a vegitative state since 2001. Sad as it may sound, I found out a copy of deed fo sale of house and lot for those 2 properties. On the deed of sale, my grandmother put my name as one of the owner of her properties, but this information was concealed from me by my father and my aunt when they were still alive and healthy. I was told by my relatives the deed of sale was never registered and they couldn't find the original copy of the deed of sale that's why they did the extrajudicial settlement which shows now I"m no longer one of the owners of the property, but an heir only to my dad.

I would like to ask your honest opinion if this is true since the deed of sale was never registered and no original copy they cannot use the deed of sale and instead prepared the extra judicial settlement agreement. Is this Deed of sale valid? What am I entitled to? So sorry I have too many questions, but if you can please help shed light on this.

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