while my boyfriend and i were dating - we found a motorcycle and bought it. i paid the full amount (9,800 in cash). he did not contribute one penny. there is a written bill of sale and but he had the guy we bought from put the buyers names as me and him. i have the title and it has only my name. boyfriend and i have now broken up. he claims the bike is 1/2 his, although he didn't pay a penny towards it. i bought it and i paid for it in cash...and title is in my name. am i indeed full owner or does he have a right just because his name is on the bill of sale? please inform.
Answered on: 5/29/10, 12:31 pm by Scott Riddle
Generally, if you are on the title, and especially if you paid for it, it is yours. Whether the ex has a claim against you for money damages (based on many more facts), is a different question. For example, what if you had an agreement with him that you would pay for the motorcycle if he paid for something else? Obviously we do not know, but that is an example of why more facts may or may not change the situation.
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